SC-900 Security, Compliance and Identity Fundamentals Practice Questions with Explanations

Free SC-900 Security, Compliance and Identity Fundamentals practice questions with an explanation for every answer. Covers Zero Trust, Microsoft Entra identity services, Microsoft Defender, Microsoft Purview compliance, and privacy.

156 questions · Cybersecurity · by Study Foxy

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Questions

  1. Under the shared responsibility model, which responsibility always stays with the customer, no matter the cloud model?

    • Information and data
    • Physical datacenter security
    • Physical network hardware
    • Physical hosts and servers
  2. A company runs virtual machines in Azure (IaaS). Who patches the guest operating system?

    • The customer
    • Microsoft
    • The hardware vendor
    • Microsoft and the customer equally
  3. In a SaaS model such as Microsoft 365, who is responsible for the application code?

    • The cloud provider
    • The customer
    • The customer's IT contractor
    • Whoever buys the most licenses
  4. Which cloud model shifts the most responsibility to the cloud provider?

    • SaaS
    • IaaS
    • PaaS
    • On-premises
  5. Which deployment leaves the customer responsible for physical datacenter security?

    • On-premises
    • IaaS
    • PaaS
    • SaaS
  6. What is the core idea behind defense in depth?

    • Multiple layers of protection
    • One strong perimeter firewall that stops all attacks
    • A single master key that encrypts all company data
    • Giving all staff admin rights so they can respond quickly
  7. In the defense-in-depth layers, network security groups belong to which layer?

    • Network
    • Perimeter
    • Application
    • Data
  8. In the defense-in-depth layers, DDoS protection belongs to which layer?

    • Perimeter
    • Network
    • Compute
    • Identity and access
  9. A DDoS attack mainly threatens which part of the CIA triad?

    • Availability
    • Confidentiality
    • Integrity
    • Authorization
  10. Comparing a file's hash before and after download mainly verifies its:

    • Integrity
    • Availability
    • Confidentiality
    • Authorization
  11. Which is one of the Zero Trust guiding principles?

    • Assume breach
    • Trust the internal network
    • Verify identity once per day
    • Grant broad access by default
  12. In Zero Trust, 'use least privilege access' means:

    • Just-in-time and just-enough access
    • Admin rights for long-serving staff
    • Full access while on the corporate LAN
    • Skipping MFA for low-risk users
  13. Which list matches the three Zero Trust guiding principles?

    • Verify explicitly, use least privilege, assume breach
    • Verify once, trust the internal network, log everything
    • Prevent, detect, and recover from attacks
    • Encrypt, hash, and digitally sign all data
  14. Which is one of the six foundational pillars of Microsoft's Zero Trust model?

    • Devices
    • Firewalls
    • Passwords
    • Datacenters
  15. Which statement describes symmetric encryption?

    • The same key encrypts and decrypts the data
    • A public key encrypts and a private key decrypts
    • Data becomes a fixed-length value that can't be reversed
    • No key is needed because the algorithm is secret
  16. Asymmetric encryption uses:

    • A public and private key pair
    • One shared secret key
    • A salt and a hash value
    • A one-time passcode
  17. What makes hashing different from encryption?

    • It's one-way and can't be reversed
    • It always requires a public key pair
    • It makes the data larger
    • It needs a certificate authority
  18. Why add a salt before hashing passwords?

    • So equal passwords get different hashes
    • So the hash can be decrypted again later
    • So the stored password becomes shorter
    • So the hash can use a public key
  19. TLS protecting data moving between a browser and a web server is an example of:

    • Encryption in transit
    • Encryption at rest
    • Hashing
    • Data masking
  20. Authentication answers which question?

    • Who are you?
    • What can you access?
    • Where is the data stored?
    • When does access expire?
  21. Authorization is best described as:

    • Deciding what a verified identity can access
    • Proving that a user is who they claim to be
    • Recording every sign-in for later review
    • Encrypting stored credentials
  22. Why is identity called the primary security perimeter?

    • Users and data now live outside the network edge
    • Firewalls are no longer sold for business networks
    • Identities can't be phished or stolen
    • Every company app now runs on-premises
  23. Which is one of the four pillars of an identity infrastructure?

    • Auditing
    • Encryption
    • Patching
    • Backup
  24. In modern authentication, which party issues security tokens after verifying a user?

    • Identity provider
    • Resource server
    • Web browser
    • DNS server
  25. What does federation allow?

    • Access across organizations via trusted identity providers
    • Syncing every user's password into each connected app
    • Merging two Active Directory forests under one admin account
    • Encrypting traffic between datacenters
  26. In a federation, trust must always be two-way.

    True or false

  27. Which is Microsoft's traditional on-premises directory service?

    • Active Directory Domain Services
    • Microsoft Entra ID
    • Microsoft Purview
    • Azure Key Vault
  28. Rules about the physical or geographic location where data is stored concern:

    • Data residency
    • Data sovereignty
    • Data classification
    • Data minimization
  29. The idea that data is subject to the laws of the country where it's collected or held is:

    • Data sovereignty
    • Data residency
    • Data integrity
    • Data lifecycle
  30. The rules, practices, and processes an organization uses to direct and control its activities are called:

    • Governance
    • Compliance
    • Risk management
    • Auditing
  31. Adhering to laws and regulations such as GDPR is called:

    • Compliance
    • Governance
    • Federation
    • Authorization
  32. Microsoft Entra ID is best described as:

    • A cloud-based identity and access management service
    • An on-premises directory that needs domain controllers
    • A SIEM that analyzes security logs
    • A data loss prevention service
  33. Microsoft Entra ID was previously called:

    • Azure Active Directory
    • Active Directory Federation Services
    • Azure Information Protection
    • Microsoft Intune
  34. Which identity type lets an Azure app reach other Azure resources without developers storing credentials?

    • Managed identity
    • Guest user
    • Shared admin account
    • Local device account
  35. What happens to a system-assigned managed identity when its Azure resource is deleted?

    • It's deleted automatically
    • It becomes user-assigned
    • It stays until an admin removes it
    • It moves to the root management group
  36. Which managed identity type can be shared by several Azure resources?

    • User-assigned
    • System-assigned
    • Guest-assigned
    • Device-assigned
  37. In Microsoft Entra ID, a service principal is:

    • An identity that an app or service uses
    • A guest user invited from a partner tenant
    • A FIDO2 key registered to an administrator
    • A group that holds administrator accounts
  38. Which Microsoft Entra identity type is designed for AI agents rather than people or traditional apps?

    • Agent identity (Microsoft Entra Agent ID)
    • Guest identity (B2B collaboration)
    • Device identity (Microsoft Entra registered)
    • Group identity (dynamic membership)
  39. A personal phone used for work email (BYOD) is typically:

    • Microsoft Entra registered
    • Microsoft Entra joined
    • Microsoft Entra hybrid joined
    • Promoted to a domain controller
  40. An organization-owned Windows laptop that signs in with a work account and uses no on-prem AD is:

    • Microsoft Entra joined
    • Microsoft Entra registered
    • Microsoft Entra hybrid joined
    • A workgroup computer
  41. A device joined to on-premises AD and also registered in Entra ID is:

    • Microsoft Entra hybrid joined
    • Microsoft Entra registered
    • Microsoft Entra joined
    • Federated only
  42. Which group type gives members a shared mailbox, calendar, and SharePoint site?

    • Microsoft 365 group
    • Security group
    • Administrative unit
    • Dynamic device group
  43. Dynamic membership groups add members based on:

    • Rules based on user or device attributes
    • Invitations sent out by the group's owners
    • Random selection each night
    • How often members sign in
  44. Which tool synchronizes on-premises AD identities to Microsoft Entra ID?

    • Microsoft Entra Connect
    • Microsoft Purview
    • Azure Bastion
    • Defender for Identity
  45. With password hash synchronization, where is a user's password checked at sign-in?

    • In Microsoft Entra ID
    • On an on-premises domain controller
    • On an AD FS server
    • On the user's device only
  46. Which hybrid method validates passwords against on-prem AD using a lightweight agent?

    • Pass-through authentication
    • Password hash synchronization
    • Certificate-based authentication
    • Temporary Access Pass
  47. Which hybrid option hands authentication to a separate trusted system such as AD FS?

    • Federation
    • Password hash sync
    • Seamless SSO
    • Cloud-only accounts
  48. A partner's employee is invited into your tenant and signs in with their own credentials. This is:

    • B2B collaboration
    • B2C sign-up
    • Pass-through authentication
    • Seamless single sign-on
  49. Which Entra capability supports customer-facing apps where consumers sign up with social or email accounts?

    • Microsoft Entra External ID for customers
    • B2B direct connect
    • Privileged Identity Management
    • Microsoft Entra Connect Sync with writeback
  50. Which combination is true multifactor authentication?

    • Password plus a code from an authenticator app
    • Password plus the answer to a security question
    • Two different passwords
    • Username plus password

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