AZ-802 Windows Server Administrator Practice Questions with Explanations

Free AZ-802 Windows Server Administrator practice questions with an explanation for every answer. Covers high availability, failover clustering, Hyper-V, storage, DFS, Group Policy, and server management.

149 questions · Information Technology · by Study Foxy

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Questions

  1. Which two FSMO roles exist only once per forest?

    • Schema master and domain naming master
    • RID master and PDC emulator
    • PDC emulator and infrastructure master
    • RID master and infrastructure master
  2. Which FSMO role is the authoritative time source for a domain and receives urgent password changes?

    • PDC emulator
    • RID master
    • Infrastructure master
    • Domain naming master
  3. Admins suddenly can't create new users or groups on one DC, and errors mention the relative ID pool. Which role holder should you check?

    • RID master
    • Schema master
    • PDC emulator
    • Domain naming master
  4. Which FSMO role must be available to add a new domain to the forest?

    • Domain naming master
    • RID master
    • Infrastructure master
    • PDC emulator
  5. The DC holding the RID master role failed permanently and won't return. What should you do?

    • Seize the role onto another DC
    • Transfer the role normally from the failed DC
    • Wait for the role to move by itself
    • Restore the failed DC from an old backup and bring it online
  6. A branch office has poor physical security and needs local logons. What should you deploy there?

    • A read-only domain controller (RODC)
    • A writable DC with BitLocker only
    • A second PDC emulator for the branch
    • A DHCP server with a long lease time
  7. How do you control which user passwords are cached on an RODC?

    • The Password Replication Policy
    • A fine-grained password policy
    • The Protected Users group
    • A Group Policy loopback setting
  8. A branch technician must manage an RODC's server locally but must not be a Domain Admin. What should you configure?

    • Administrator role separation on the RODC
    • Membership in Enterprise Admins
    • A forest trust to the branch
    • The Account Operators group in the domain
  9. You deploy a DC on an Azure VM. Where should the NTDS database and SYSVOL be stored?

    • A data disk with host caching set to None
    • The temporary disk for best speed
    • The OS disk with read/write caching
    • An Azure Files share mounted over SMB from the DC
  10. Two forests must share resources, and authentication should flow between every domain in both forests. Which trust fits?

    • A forest trust
    • An external trust
    • A shortcut trust
    • A realm trust
  11. A Windows domain must trust a single domain in another forest, and the trust should not be transitive. Which trust fits?

    • An external trust
    • A forest trust
    • A shortcut trust
    • A parent-child trust
  12. Users in two child domains of one large forest see slow authentication between them. What can shorten the path?

    • A shortcut trust
    • A realm trust
    • An external trust
    • Selective authentication
  13. A forest trust should only let specific users access specific servers in your forest. What should you enable?

    • Selective authentication
    • SID history
    • A shortcut trust
    • Universal group caching
  14. How does AD DS know which site a client computer belongs to?

    • Its IP address matches a subnet linked to a site
    • Its computer name prefix
    • The DHCP server it used
    • The OU the computer object is in, set by an administrator
  15. What is the default replication interval on an AD DS site link?

    • 180 minutes
    • 15 minutes
    • 60 minutes
    • 24 hours
  16. Which component automatically builds the AD replication topology between domain controllers?

    • Knowledge Consistency Checker (KCC)
    • Infrastructure master
    • Global catalog
    • DFS Namespaces
  17. Which command gives a quick summary of replication health across all DCs?

    • repadmin /replsummary
    • gpresult /r
    • ipconfig /all
    • netsh int ip reset
  18. In the AGDLP strategy, what are user accounts placed into first?

    • Global groups
    • Domain local groups
    • Universal groups
    • Local groups on each server
  19. Which group scope can contain members from any domain in the forest and is listed in the global catalog?

    • Universal
    • Global
    • Domain local
    • Local
  20. A service runs on four web servers and needs one account whose password AD changes automatically. Which account type fits?

    • A group managed service account (gMSA)
    • A standalone managed service account
    • A normal user account with a long password
    • The built-in Local System account on each
  21. What must exist in the domain before you can create a gMSA?

    • A KDS root key
    • A fine-grained password policy
    • An RODC in the site
    • A forest trust
  22. In what order are Group Policy Objects applied?

    • Local, site, domain, then OU
    • OU, domain, site, then local
    • Domain, site, local, then OU
    • Site, local, OU, then domain
  23. A GPO at the domain level must apply even to OUs that block inheritance. What should you set on its link?

    • Enforced
    • Block inheritance
    • Loopback processing
    • Security filtering
  24. A GPO should apply only to members of the Finance group within an OU. What should you configure?

    • Security filtering
    • Block inheritance
    • WMI filtering by OS only
    • Loopback processing
  25. Kiosk computers must apply the same user settings no matter who signs in. What should you configure?

    • Loopback processing in Replace mode
    • Security filtering on users
    • Block inheritance on the OU that holds the kiosk users
    • An Enforced link at the domain
  26. Which command shows which GPOs were applied to the current user and computer?

    • gpresult /r
    • gpupdate /force
    • repadmin /showrepl
    • dcdiag /test:dns
  27. What is a key difference between Group Policy preferences and policy settings?

    • Users can change preferences; policies are enforced
    • Preferences only apply to domain controllers and member servers
    • Policies can only target user settings
    • Preferences can't map network drives
  28. Where should you store ADMX templates so every admin uses the same versions?

    • The central store in SYSVOL
    • Each admin's local PolicyDefinitions folder
    • The NETLOGON share on one server
    • An Azure Files share
  29. Which type of DNS record do clients use to locate domain controllers?

    • SRV
    • MX
    • PTR
    • TXT
  30. Which group policy setting area configures mapping a drive letter to a department share?

    • Group Policy Preferences, Drive Maps
    • Security Settings, Account Policies, Password Policy
    • Administrative Templates, System
    • Software Restriction Policies
  31. An RODC can replicate changes it receives from users back to writable domain controllers.

    True or false

  32. Which ports does PowerShell remoting (WinRM) use by default?

    • 5985 for HTTP and 5986 for HTTPS
    • 3389 for RDP and 22 for SSH
    • 443 for HTTPS only
    • 135 and 445
  33. In a remote PowerShell session on Server A, a command can't access a share on Server B. What is this problem called?

    • The double-hop problem
    • DNS split-brain
    • The RID pool problem
    • Kerberos realm mismatch
  34. What is the recommended secure fix for the PowerShell double-hop problem?

    • Resource-based Kerberos constrained delegation
    • Enabling CredSSP on every server
    • Running all of the commands as a Domain Admin account
    • Disabling Kerberos and using NTLM
  35. Help desk staff should restart one service on servers through PowerShell without being admins. What should you use?

    • Just Enough Administration (JEA)
    • Membership in Domain Admins
    • CredSSP delegation
    • Remote Desktop with full admin
  36. Which port does the OpenSSH server on Windows Server listen on by default?

    • 22
    • 3389
    • 5985
    • 445
  37. Which agent must be installed to make an on-premises Windows Server an Azure Arc-enabled server?

    • The Azure Connected Machine agent
    • The MARS backup agent
    • The Azure File Sync agent
    • The Hyper-V integration services
  38. You need to onboard 300 servers to Azure Arc with a script, without interactive sign-ins. What do you use?

    • A service principal with onboarding rights
    • A Domain Admin's personal account
    • One interactive sign-in per server by a Global Administrator
    • A storage account key
  39. Once a server is Arc-enabled, which capability becomes available for it?

    • Azure Policy and VM extensions
    • Live migration into Azure VMs
    • Automatic AD forest upgrades
    • Free Azure VM compute hours
  40. Patches for Azure and Arc-enabled servers should install on a schedule during maintenance windows. What should you use?

    • Azure Update Manager maintenance configurations
    • WSUS on every server individually
    • A Group Policy loopback setting
    • An RODC Password Replication Policy linked to each server's site
  41. An Azure Automation runbook must run scripts against on-premises servers. What should you deploy?

    • A Hybrid Runbook Worker
    • A Bastion host
    • An RODC
    • A DHCP relay agent
  42. Which Hyper-V feature enables clipboard sharing, drive redirection, and audio in a VM connection?

    • Enhanced Session Mode
    • Dynamic Memory
    • Nested virtualization
    • Hyper-V Replica
  43. You need to run PowerShell inside a VM from the Hyper-V host, even though the VM has no network connection. What should you use?

    • PowerShell Direct
    • WinRM over HTTPS
    • CredSSP delegation
    • OpenSSH on port 22
  44. You want to run Hyper-V inside a VM for a lab. What must you set while the VM is off?

    • ExposeVirtualizationExtensions on the VM processor
    • Dynamic Memory with a high buffer and a large maximum value
    • Enhanced Session Mode on the host
    • A private virtual switch
  45. Which Hyper-V memory feature adjusts a VM's RAM between a minimum and maximum based on demand?

    • Dynamic Memory
    • NUMA spanning
    • Smart paging only
    • Memory weight
  46. Which Hyper-V integration service lets you copy files into a VM with Copy-VMFile?

    • Guest services
    • Heartbeat
    • Time synchronization
    • Shutdown
  47. A VM needs exclusive, direct access to a physical GPU or NVMe device. What should you use?

    • Discrete Device Assignment (DDA)
    • GPU partitioning
    • Enhanced Session Mode
    • A private virtual switch
  48. Which checkpoint type uses VSS inside the guest and is the default in Hyper-V?

    • Production checkpoints
    • Standard checkpoints
    • Differencing checkpoints
    • Saved-state checkpoints
  49. A VM must be copied asynchronously to another Hyper-V host for disaster recovery, without shared storage. What should you use?

    • Hyper-V Replica
    • Live migration
    • Storage QoS
    • Nested virtualization
  50. What is a key advantage of VHDX over VHD?

    • Support for disks up to 64 TB
    • Compatibility with every older Hyper-V
    • Smaller files for fixed disks
    • No need for integration services

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