SC-200 Security Operations Analyst Practice Questions with Explanations

Free SC-200 Microsoft Security Operations Analyst practice questions with an explanation for every answer. Covers Microsoft Sentinel, KQL queries, Microsoft Defender threat response, and incident investigation.

158 questions · Cybersecurity · by Study Foxy

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Questions

  1. Where do you set up email notifications for new Microsoft Defender XDR incidents?

    • Settings in the Microsoft Defender portal
    • The Microsoft Entra admin center
    • Data connectors in the Microsoft Purview portal
    • Azure Policy assignments in the Azure portal
  2. A benign IT script triggers the same Defender alert every day. What cuts the noise without turning off the detection everywhere?

    • An alert tuning rule scoped to that script
    • Turning off Microsoft Defender Antivirus on the affected devices
    • Deleting the device group that the devices belong to
    • Setting every device group to no automated response
  3. A device matches the rules of two device groups in Defender for Endpoint. Which group does it join?

    • The highest-ranked matching group
    • Both groups at the same time
    • The most recently created group
    • The group that has the most devices in it
  4. Devices that match no device group rules are placed in:

    • Ungrouped devices (default)
    • The Tier 0 device group
    • A quarantine device group
    • No group, so they aren't managed
  5. Device groups in Defender for Endpoint are mainly used to:

    • Set automation levels and scope analyst access
    • Encrypt device disks with BitLocker on enrollment
    • Assign Microsoft 365 licenses
    • Join devices to Microsoft Entra ID
  6. Which automation level remediates threats with no analyst approval?

    • Full - remediate threats automatically
    • Semi - require approval for any remediation
    • Semi - require approval for core folders remediation
    • No automated response
  7. Which automation level does Microsoft recommend for most device groups?

    • Full - remediate threats automatically
    • Semi - require approval for non-temp folders
    • No automated response
    • Semi - require approval for any remediation
  8. Where do analysts approve pending remediation actions from automated investigations?

    • Action center
    • Content hub
    • Threat analytics
    • Secure Score
  9. Which attack surface reduction (ASR) rule mode logs what would have been blocked, without blocking it?

    • Audit
    • Block
    • Warn
    • Enforce
  10. Which ASR rule mode blocks the action but lets the user choose to continue?

    • Warn
    • Audit
    • Block
    • Monitor
  11. Which ASR rule helps stop Mimikatz-style credential theft?

    • Block credential stealing from lsass.exe
    • Block executable content from email and webmail
    • Block Office applications from creating child processes
    • Block untrusted, unsigned processes that run from USB
  12. A Word macro launches PowerShell to download malware. Which ASR rule stops this?

    • Block all Office applications from creating child processes
    • Block credential stealing from lsass.exe
    • Block persistence through WMI event subscriptions
    • Block executable content from email clients and webmail sites
  13. ASR rules require Microsoft Defender Antivirus to be:

    • The primary antivirus, in active mode
    • In passive mode alongside another antivirus
    • Disabled so ASR can run alone
    • Installed on domain controllers only
  14. Which advanced feature must be on before analysts can open a remote shell on a device?

    • Live Response
    • Tamper protection
    • Web content filtering
    • Custom network indicators
  15. Which setting stops an attacker from turning off Defender Antivirus on a device?

    • Tamper protection
    • Live Response
    • Automated investigation
    • Device discovery
  16. Custom network indicators that block IPs and URLs require:

    • Network protection in block mode
    • Tamper protection in audit mode
    • Live Response for unsigned scripts
    • EDR in block mode on servers
  17. When is EDR in block mode most useful?

    • When a third-party AV is primary and Defender AV is passive
    • When Defender Antivirus is already the active, primary antivirus
    • When a device has no internet connection
    • When ASR rules are set to Warn mode
  18. Automatic attack disruption can automatically:

    • Contain compromised devices and disable compromised users
    • Delete all mailboxes in the tenant
    • Reimage infected devices from a clean image automatically
    • Change the tenant's default domain
  19. What does automated investigation and response (AIR) do?

    • Investigates alerts and remediates or recommends fixes
    • Writes new analytics rules from Microsoft threat reports
    • Moves raw logs into the data lake tier
    • Builds workbooks for SOC managers
  20. Which Microsoft Sentinel role lets an analyst manage incidents, such as assigning or closing them, but not create rules?

    • Microsoft Sentinel Responder
    • Microsoft Sentinel Reader
    • Microsoft Sentinel Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Automation Contributor
  21. Which Sentinel role lets a user create and edit analytics rules and workbooks?

    • Microsoft Sentinel Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Responder
    • Microsoft Sentinel Reader
    • Microsoft Sentinel Playbook Operator
  22. For automation rules to run playbooks, which role does Sentinel need on the playbooks' resource group?

    • Microsoft Sentinel Automation Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Responder
    • Logic App Contributor
    • Security Reader
  23. Which role lets an analyst run playbooks manually but not create them?

    • Microsoft Sentinel Playbook Operator
    • Logic App Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Automation Contributor
  24. What role is needed to create or edit a Sentinel playbook?

    • Logic App Contributor
    • Microsoft Sentinel Reader
    • Microsoft Sentinel Playbook Operator
    • Microsoft Sentinel Responder
  25. A SOC manager wants an interactive dashboard of failed sign-ins over time. What should you build in Sentinel?

    • A workbook
    • A playbook
    • A watchlist
    • An automation rule
  26. How long is data retention included at no extra cost in a Sentinel-enabled workspace's analytics tier?

    • 90 days
    • 30 days
    • 180 days
    • 2 years
  27. How far back can Defender XDR advanced hunting query raw event data?

    • 30 days
    • 7 days
    • 90 days
    • 1 year
  28. Which Sentinel tier is built for low-cost, long-term storage queried by KQL jobs and notebooks?

    • Data lake tier
    • Analytics tier
    • XDR tier
    • Interactive tier
  29. Which Sentinel tier supports real-time analytics rules and fast interactive queries?

    • Analytics tier
    • Data lake tier
    • Archive tier
    • Cold storage tier
  30. SOC optimization in Microsoft Sentinel mainly provides:

    • Recommendations to close coverage gaps and cut low-value data
    • A list of analysts ranked by how fast they close their incidents
    • Automatic deletion of tables nobody has queried
    • A tool for buying more commitment-tier capacity
  31. Which agent collects Windows and Linux logs into Sentinel today?

    • Azure Monitor Agent (AMA)
    • Log Analytics agent (MMA)
    • Defender for Identity sensor
    • Entra Connect Health agent
  32. With the Azure Monitor Agent, what defines which events are collected and where they're sent?

    • A data collection rule (DCR)
    • An analytics rule
    • An automation rule
    • A device group
  33. Windows Security Events collected through AMA land in which table?

    • SecurityEvent
    • WindowsEvent
    • Syslog
    • SigninLogs
  34. In the Windows Security Events via AMA connector, which event set gives a standard audit trail without collecting everything?

    • Common
    • All events
    • Minimal
    • Verbose
  35. Events collected from a Windows Event Forwarding (WEF) collector through AMA go to which table?

    • WindowsEvent
    • SecurityEvent
    • Event
    • CommonSecurityLog
  36. CEF logs from a firewall appliance arrive in which Sentinel table?

    • CommonSecurityLog
    • Syslog
    • SecurityEvent
    • AzureDiagnostics
  37. To collect CEF logs from network appliances that can't run an agent, you deploy:

    • A Linux log forwarder running AMA
    • A Windows Event Collector server
    • A Defender for Identity sensor
    • An Entra private network connector
  38. Linux syslog collected through AMA lands in which table?

    • Syslog
    • CommonSecurityLog
    • SecurityEvent
    • LinuxAudit
  39. How do you connect Azure Activity logs from many subscriptions at scale?

    • Assign an Azure Policy that sets diagnostic settings
    • Install the Azure Monitor Agent on every VM in each subscription
    • Run a playbook each night to export logs
    • Send activity logs through a CEF forwarder
  40. Custom log tables in a Log Analytics workspace end with which suffix?

    • _CL
    • _CT
    • _LOG
    • _CUSTOM
  41. Which is a way to bring threat indicators into Microsoft Sentinel?

    • The TAXII data connector
    • The Windows Security Events connector
    • The Azure Activity connector
    • The Syslog via AMA connector
  42. In Defender XDR, custom detection rules are built from:

    • Advanced hunting queries
    • Sentinel workbooks
    • Threat analytics reports
    • Purview DLP policies
  43. Which is a valid run frequency for a Defender XDR custom detection rule?

    • Every 24 hours
    • Every 10 seconds
    • Every 30 days
    • Once a quarter
  44. A Defender XDR custom detection query must return:

    • Timestamp and a column identifying the affected entity
    • Only a count of matching rows
    • A render statement that draws a chart
    • A column named Severity and nothing else, so it can be ranked
  45. Which Sentinel analytics rule type runs about once a minute for near-instant detection?

    • Near-real-time (NRT)
    • Scheduled
    • Fusion
    • Anomaly
  46. In a scheduled analytics rule, 'Lookup data from the last' controls:

    • How far back each query run looks
    • How often the rule runs
    • How long incidents stay open before they auto-close
    • How many alerts are grouped
  47. What is the longest lookback period a scheduled analytics rule can use?

    • 14 days
    • 1 day
    • 90 days
    • 2 years
  48. Which Sentinel rule type uses machine learning to link low-fidelity alerts into multistage attack incidents?

    • Fusion
    • Near-real-time
    • Scheduled
    • Microsoft security
  49. Which Sentinel rule type creates incidents from alerts raised by other Microsoft security products?

    • Microsoft security
    • Fusion
    • Threat intelligence
    • Anomaly
  50. Which Sentinel rule type matches your logs against threat indicators?

    • Threat intelligence
    • Fusion
    • Near-real-time
    • Anomaly

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